If racism requires systemic oppression, then the first white people to buy slaves weren’t racist, because there was not yet systemic oppression (besides the slavery system they bought the slaves from)
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I don’t really subscribe to that definition of racism, but how does this discredit it? A pale skinned man enslaving a dark skinned man was always fucked up but not “racist” until “race” was invented to justify and motivate it.
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Hm... I agree a lot of people would, but I'd personally guess more in the general public than among those who somewhat understand/subscribe to critical race theory (not exactly who you're referring to but definitely intended to overlap greatly, no?)
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