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when i was an escort, there was a slight (r=0.2) negative correlation (p=0.1) between the likelihood that I had an orgasm and the physical attractiveness of my client.
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Was r=0.2 or r=-0.2? The sign of r determines directionality. The p-value has nothing* to do with the strength or direction of the result, just the likelihood it’s a true result.
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It was -.2, I forgot to include negative sign. I also know how r and p values work, I'm starting to get offended when ppl try to explain them to me for the millionth time. Like do you think I just threw those numbers in there for fun?
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Research scientists throw those numbers in for fun and then misinterpret them—I only blindly trust statisticians. I commented on it because the inclusion of the p-value didn’t apply to the context.
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I would have left it out and relegated it to a table somewhere. It’s most meaningful alongside the parameter values or effect sizes it tests the significance of. What was your model here? Linear probability, logistic regression, or something else?
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