when i was an escort, there was a slight (r=0.2) negative correlation (p=0.1) between the likelihood that I had an orgasm and the physical attractiveness of my client.
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My theory is that unattractive clients tried harder than attractive ones
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Was r=0.2 or r=-0.2? The sign of r determines directionality. The p-value has nothing* to do with the strength or direction of the result, just the likelihood it’s a true result.
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It was -.2, I forgot to include negative sign.
I also know how r and p values work, I'm starting to get offended when ppl try to explain them to me for the millionth time. Like do you think I just threw those numbers in there for fun?
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interesting.
i discused this phenomen with a female friend of mine the other day.
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The pretty boys didn't have to try as hard. The ugly guys probably thought they owed you something.
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