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because i sense possible ratio incoming, i wanna clarify that what the hell is a husband supposed to do when his wife of 30 years stops having sex with him entirely? leave her, throw everything away that they've built, or just spend the rest of his life never having sex again?
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Would you say that polyamory is bad for business then? Or are men just as likely or even more likely to pay for sex work when they can do it openly and honestly.
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Define "better to" because thats the key part of your claim and it reeks of bias. How do you determine what is best/better for a marriage? Is it necessarily good for any marriage for cheating (which is by definition, unknown, non consensual) to occur?
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