Tweet duo (vote on this before looking at the next one):
1. If a woman consents to sex under certain conditions, and a man has sex but violates those conditions, do you consider this rape?
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Replying to
A man has sex with a sex worker. After he leaves, the sex worker discovers that the money he left her was fake.
Do you consider this rape?
- Yes31.9%
- No68.1%
3,928 votesFinal results
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I voted no, no
conditions was sufficiently broad that I was worried it'd have temporal conditions (e.g. I consent as long as I never regret that we had sex)
and I think theft/transaction transgression is general and more fundamental of a offense
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To the first, I would say it depends on the conditions...but if you mean it like I think you do, it would not be rape. Nor the second.
Rape is if sex occurs against your will, not if it fails to meat your expectations of some other condition/deal/desired future state.
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There’s so many interesting implications of this if the answer is yes. An interesting one is that the massive over-representation of men among rapists would vanish.
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What if it's an implicit condition like on the condition that he/she does not knowingly have HIV?
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This very much depends on if the condition is immediate and part of the act, or incidental and unrelated directly.
It's the difference between physically violating someone a way they aren't comfortable, vs lying about getting them a snack afterwards.
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I think the answer is it depends on the conditions, but reminder not to mentally replace the question of "was this act bad/wrong" with "was it rape". You might be tempted to say it's rape because it's a sex-related wrong, but there are other ways for a thing to be wrong
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Most conditions are specific sexual activity that different women DON'T want.
Violate any of those, I would consider that rape.
On the second point: if you get charged with rape, I'm just not going to have any sympathy for you.
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