I answered “no” but mainly because I reject the premise of the question. Intelligence isn’t quantifiable at least not as a single variable.
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And if we assume multiple types of intelligence we’re averaging into a single value, then “no bias” by definition means we’re weighting them so all races are equal on average.
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I don't think the genetic difference is so significant as the environmental factor. Children with proper diets vs poorly nourish ones are gonna have a much significant discrepancy.
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IQ is lower in isolated groups or communities. It doesn't matter the race. White Scottish from Hebrides Islands have lower than mainland Scottish.
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Could we have a option of saying I don’t know?
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I don't know the cause, but my best guess is it's not genetic.
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Yes, definitely; genetic causes part of it definitey; the presently observed difference is probably not mostly genetic
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Bias is inherent to the definition of IQ
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Wish there was more nuance in the options to respond.
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