A fascinating academic dispute between @thecelticist (@MaynoothUni @MU_Research) & Dr Lara Cassidy (@tcddublin) in a BBC History blog (@DJMusgrove) about how to interpret the "Newgrange incest story" that broke last week.https://www.historyextra.com/period/medieval/do-early-medieval-irish-texts-shed-light-prehistoric-incest/ …
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Yes, sure, some such scenario must have occurred. You don't even have to look back into the very distant past to find a parallel: Ireland is now de facto a Germanic-speaking country, but the population stayed the same to the largest degree. There are sociolinguistic models...
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...that can give us scenarios where the language shifts without large-scale migration happening. During the colonial period, i.e. in the past half millennium, it has happened all over the world. I don't understand why people don't get their head round this simple fact.
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If I recall, Britain shows similar migration patterns, and I think that Gaul was similar, namely that the last large migration was in the Neolithic. So would this maybe suggest that language shift does not have to be the result of direct migration?
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Language shift is ALWAYS the result of some sort of migration. Languages DO NOT TRAVEL, it is humans that travel. The question is only what the exact sociolinguistic conditions were that favoured or disfavoured a language change. One possible scenario is that a small elite...
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