Earlier this week I Tweeted about how my upcoming fantasy series has no sexual violence because I didn’t want it in the world. A couple of guys were demanding explanations and accusing me of bad writing. “There has to be a fundamental reason why it doesn’t happen!”
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Yet (as Mike points out) that was GRRMs choice. I hadn’t thought about it before, but he couod have chosen not to take the rape/incest route to adding conflict.
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Absolutely.
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How do we know that? Honest curious question, not baiting.
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Because of the laws and attitudes about sexual violence written down. I don’t have the time or space to get into it here but sexual violence etc is discussed at length in many publications. And every medievalist I know who writes on it says that GRRM got it wrong.
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