Quite possibly yes. This reads as not very well-written or considered either. https://twitter.com/1gst3551/status/1200537463648899072 …
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But not every paper is abt colonialism. Can a paper not say: differences existed ex ante, so here is a mechanism that may help explain the variation in the outcome?
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If it’s about economic differences between Europe and not-Europe, it should *probably* consider colonialism in a more than cursory way
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