Two areas, substantial diff from each other, fairly homogeneous internally (across regions). Do you not buy the premise, & if so which part; or do you think the above phenomenon came abt through a variety of diff channels which happened to yield above outcome?
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Thanks for the input! Gives me a good impression of the main points of contention. Let me ask you, too: What are papers/book chapters/books that would give me a more accurate pic of the emergence of individualism? Or maybe you know someone you can @ who specializes in this.
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Unfortunately I can’t remember anything off the top of my head, sorry. Been awhile since I learned about it.
End of conversation
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