Two areas, substantial diff from each other, fairly homogeneous internally (across regions). Do you not buy the premise, & if so which part; or do you think the above phenomenon came abt through a variety of diff channels which happened to yield above outcome?
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Plus, the historians and books they cite? Older works, several outdated and refuted now, no engagement with the material and the debates therein, and many key sources not cited.
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Thanks for the input! Gives me a good impression of the main points of contention. Let me ask you, too: What are papers/book chapters/books that would give me a more accurate pic of the emergence of individualism? Or maybe you know someone you can @ who specializes in this.
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