Read @AdmiralHip's thread; much helpful context. My question is diff.
Premise: Fairly clear & empirically documented divide in psych traits b/w 2 or more large areas that are internally fairly homogeneous.
Question: So, same outcome emerged in parallel through diff channels?
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...were the same in the future. Moreover, it does not account for the cousin marriages which did exist and we do have data for that in the early modern period. There isn’t just that one publication cited above. There were more cases, laws, etc.
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Plus, the historians and books they cite? Older works, several outdated and refuted now, no engagement with the material and the debates therein, and many key sources not cited.
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