Read @AdmiralHip's thread; much helpful context. My question is diff.
Premise: Fairly clear & empirically documented divide in psych traits b/w 2 or more large areas that are internally fairly homogeneous.
Question: So, same outcome emerged in parallel through diff channels?
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It is simply not provable that contact with the medieval church led to individuality. Nor would that even make sense. In fact there are studies on emerging individuality in the medieval period as shown through art etc.
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Not only does their data not account for several nations that had early contact with the Church, but those marriage laws were not and could not be enforced unilaterally.
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