Why is it necessary to also accept a biological theory of these qualities, though, when socialization explains it well? It's strange to me to say "Socialization explains a lot of what we define as masculine/feminine, but at some level, women must just be feminine and vice versa"
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Yes, absolutely. I know this is an unpopular view among some radical feminists, but I think it's the most reasonable one, considering that some cultures lack homosexuality, while in others it is entrenched, and that this presence itself varies over time.
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