I want to come back to this real quick because it's indicative of an extremely common error in economic reasoninghttps://twitter.com/380kmh/status/840232233621442560 …
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Economic growth, technological development, and material progress are all *urban* phenomena. If they succeed, they later spread to country.
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The question is never "is the USA too big for a railway network;" some tiny countries have no rail at all, while Russia has its vast network
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The question is "why don't American cities have modern rail networks and industries?"
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Correcting the question doesn't immediately shed light on an answer--there are MANY reasons for poor rail service in US cities--but it helps
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If nothing else, it avoids unhelpful analogies and specious reasoning
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I wonder, will city-states ever become widespread again?
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